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swaminathan
12-04-2011, 05:18 AM
Hi


I have found this question & answer in Wendell Odom's ICND1 book as follows:


https://learningnetwork .cisco.com/servlet/JiveServlet/downloadImage/2-197361-75974/297-139/cisco.bmp (https://learningnetwork .cisco.com/servlet/JiveServlet/showImage/2-197361-75974/cisco.bmp)


Answer: a & b


My doubt is when PC1 forwards tp PC2 , automatically PC2 FA0/2 would have been registered in the switch SW1 MAC table during the first frame reaching PC2 from PC1. Then when PC3 sends the frame to PC2, no need for flooding it to both FA0/1 & FA0/2


My answer is only b


Anybody please suggest me?

Big Evil
12-04-2011, 08:48 AM
An odd question - it misses out whether 2222:2222:2222: 2222 answered therefore the switch would not know where to find 2222:2222:2222: 2222.

Based on this - the switch would flood out of all the other ports.

This is how Cisco write question - if you start to over think them you will get it wrong. Take what they say and apply the basic logic - do add you own information to questions.

HTH.

swaminathan
12-04-2011, 09:37 AM
An odd question - it misses out whether 2222:2222:2222: 2222 answered therefore the switch would not know where to find 2222:2222:2222: 2222.

Based on this - the switch would flood out of all the other ports.

This is how Cisco write question - if you start to over think them you will get it wrong. Take what they say and apply the basic logic - do add you own information to questions.

HTH.



Hi Big Evil !

Glad to see your reply and agree with your solution; meantime I found the same exact question at https://learningnetwork .cisco.com/message/143600#143600


And please help me in this discussion topic from me posted two days before at


http://www.lammle.com/discussion/showthread.php? t=5554

Still nobody answered