CCNA Practice Exam 1

How does CAPWAP communicate between an access point in local mode and a WLC?

Which of the following is not an advantage of a next generation firewall (NGFW)?

What is a characteristic of spine-and-leaf architecture?

Which of the following descriptions are related to the Puppet technology? (Choose two).

Which two reasons can cause the late collision counter to increment on an Ethernet interface? (Choose two).

What are two common TCP applications? (Choose two).

What is the difference regarding reliability and communication type between TCP and UDP?

Given a subnet mask of 255.255.255.224, which of the following addresses can be assigned to network hosts? (Choose three).

Given an IP address of 192.168.1.42 255.255.255.248, what is the subnet address?

A network engineer needs to configure a branch office for 82 hosts. What is the most efficient use of a subnet mask?

Which three network addresses are reserved for private network use? (Choose three).

An IPv6 multicast address always begins with which Hexadecimal digits?

Identify the four valid IPv6 addresses. (Choose four).

During which lightweight access point operation state does the device poll the wireless LAN controller (WLC) for information such as QoS rules, SSIDs, and security parameters?

An engineer must configure a WLAN using the strongest encryption type for WPA2-PSK. Which cipher fulfills the configuration requirement?

Which mode of Wi-Fi protected access (WPA) is also referred to as enterprise mode?

What are two fundamentals of virtualization? (Choose two).

A MAC address is _____ bits long, and expressed in _____?

All 30 users on a single floor of a building are complaining about network slowness. After investigating the access switch, the network administrator notices that the MAC address table is full (10,000 entries) and all traffic is being flooded out of every port. Which action can the administrator take to prevent this from occurring?

A Cisco switch has 8 PCs connected and the switch is in its default configuration. The switch also connects to a Cisco router. How many collision domains
are there?

An engineer is asked to protect unused ports that are configured in the default VLAN on a switch. Which two steps will fulfill the request? (Choose two).

Assuming the default switch configuration, which VLAN range can be added, modified, and removed on a Cisco switch?

On a corporate network, hosts on the same VLAN can communicate with each other, but they cannot communicate with hosts on different VLANs. What is needed to allow communication between the VLANs?

Refer to the exhibit. A host is connected to switch port fa0/3. The host and switch have been fully configured for IP connectivity as shown. However, the indicator LED on switch port fa0/3 is not on, and the host cannot communicate with any other hosts including those connected to VLAN 2 on the same switch. Based on the given information, what is the problem?

Refer to the exhibit. Given the output shown from this Cisco Catalyst 2950, what is the reason that interface FastEthernet 0/10 is not the root port for VLAN 2?

Three switches are connected to one another via trunk ports. Assuming the default switch configuration, which switch is elected as the root bridge for the spanning-tree instance of vlan 1?

What are three advantages of VLANs? (Choose three).

Which statements accurately describe CDP? (Choose three).

You are the network administrator for your company and have configured Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP) in your network. You recently noticed that when devices send large numbers of CDP neighbor announcements, some devices are crashing. You decide to disable CDP on the router. Which command should you use to achieve the objective?

Which command is used to enable LLDP globally on a Cisco IOS ISR?

Which command should you enter to configure an LLDP delay time of 5 seconds?

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the LACP neighbor status, in which mode is the SW1 port channel configured?

What is a difference between local AP mode and FlexConnect AP mode?

A network administrator cannot connect to a remote router by using SSH. Part of the show interfaces command is shown.

 router#show interfaces Serial0/1/0 is up, line protocol is down

At which OSI layer should the administrator begin troubleshooting?

Which QoS Profile is selected in the GUI when configuring a voice over WLAN deployment?

Match the Cisco default administrative distance to the appropriate routing protocol or route.

What is the default Reference Bandwidth used by OSPF to calculate Cost?

What are two reasons for an engineer to configure a floating static route? (Choose two).

A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and R2. The routers cannot establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link. The graphic shows the output of the show ip ospf interface e0 command for routers R1 and R2. Based on the information in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem?

The internetwork infrastructure of company XYZ consists of a single OSPF area as shown in the graphic. There is concern that a lack of router resources is impeding internetwork performance. As part of examining the router resources, the OSPF DRs need to be known. All the router OSPF priorities are at the default and the router IDs are shown with each router. Which routers are likely to have been elected as DR? (Choose two).

How does using the service password-encryption command on a router provide additional security?

If configuring a static default route on the router with the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.13.0.1 120 command, how does the router respond?

Which protocol is the Cisco proprietary implementation of FHRP?

Identify the different types of NAT. (Choose three).

In a Network Address Translation (NAT) configuration, what command is given (and in what configuration mode is it given) to specify that an interface is on the inside of a network?

Which of the following commands is used to configure NTP client functionality on a Cisco router?

Which of the following displays a JSON representation?

What does the R stand for in CRUD?

The main function of northbound APIs in the SDN architecture is to enable communication between which two areas of a network?

Order the DHCP message types as they would occur between a DHCP client and a DHCP server.

DNS servers provide what service?

Refer to the router output. What does the number 15 represent in this configuration?

snmp-server group SNMP v3 auth access 15

What are three components that comprise the SNMP framework? (Choose three).

What is the default Syslog facility level?

Which Syslog message code indicates an emergency state where the system is unstable?

Under what condition would the DHCP Relay Agent feature be required in order to make sure our network hosts are able to obtain an IP address through DHCP?

What 8-bit field exists in IP packet for QoS?

What Cisco WLAN QoS class is designed for normal traffic? 

Which QoS mechanism is most appropriate for giving priority treatment to voice or video packets?

The process of attempting to exploit a weakness in a network after being given permission by the company is known as what?

With a DHCP snooping configuration, which type of port designation would be used on an interface up-linked to a DHCP server?

A network administrator is configuring ACLs on a Cisco router to allow traffic from hosts on networks 192.168.146.0, 192.168.147.0, 192.168.148.0, and 192.168.149.0 only. Which two ACL statements, when combined, would you use to accomplish this task? (Choose two).

Refer to the exhibit. A TFTP server has recently been installed in the Atlanta office. The network administrator is located in the NY office and has made a console connection to the NY router. After establishing the connection, they are unable to backup the configuration file and IOS of the NY router to the TFTP server. What is the cause of this problem?

What is the effect of this configuration?

line vty 0 4
password todd
login
transport input ssh

To prevent users from plugging a host into a Switch port, which command is used to enable port security on a Switch?

When a site-to-site VPN is used, which protocol is responsible for the transport of user data?

What is the primary difference between AAA authentication and authorization?

What are the two most commonly used authentication factors in multifactor authentication? (Choose two)

On a Cisco router which two router modes can be protected by a password? (Choose two).

Which command can you enter to configure a local username with an encrypted password and EXEC mode user privileges?

What method of data collection used by Cisco DNA Center follows a push-based model?

How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Center device management differ in regard to deployment?

What is a benefit of using a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?

What statement about Link Aggregation when implemented on a Cisco Wireless LAN controller is true?

A network engineer is configuring an OSPFv2 neighbor adjacency. Which of the following parameters must be unique regarding OSPF routers? (Choose two).

A router is running three routing processes: RIP, OSPF, and EIGRP, each configured with default characteristics. Each process learns a route to the same remote network. If there are no static routes to the destination and none of the routes were redistributed, which route will be placed in the IP routing table?

An engineer configured an OSPF neighbor as a designated router. Which state verifies the designated router is in the proper mode?

Which statement about the native VLAN in 802.1Q is false?

What is the primary effect of the spanning-tree portfast command?

What does RSTP use for a fast converging backup for the root port in RSTP?

In a switched environment, what does the IEEE 802.1Q standard describe?

What term is assigned to an untagged VLAN on an IEEE 802.1Q trunk?

Which of these represents an IPv6 link-local address?

Which two endpoint measures are used to minimize the chances of falling victim to phishing and social engineering attacks? (Choose two)

A workstation has just resolved a browser URL to the IP address of a server. What protocol will the workstation now use to determine the destination MAC address to be placed into frames directed toward the server?

An organization has decided to start using cloud-provided services. Which cloud service allows the organization to install its own operating system on a virtual machine?

How can you ensure that only the MAC address of a server is allowed by switch port Fa0/1?

What feature permits the dynamic learning of the static port security addresses?

A switch receives a frame on one of its ports. There is no entry in the MAC address table for the destination MAC address. What will the switch do with the frame?

A host wants to send a message to another host that has the IP address 115.99.80.157. IP does not know the hardware address of the destination device. Which protocol can be used to discover the MAC address?

What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two).

What plane of operation would OSPF belong to in a Cisco DNA Center SDN environment?

Which of the following commands will enable a global IPv6 address based on the Modified EUI-64 format interface ID?

Refer to the exhibit. Which default gateway address should be assigned to HostA?

Which command will set the default gateway to 192.168.12.1 on a Cisco switch?

Thanks to OSPF. your router has several matches for a destination prefix in its routing table. Which will it use to forward packets?

What are three characteristics of the OSPF routing protocol? (Choose three).

What two things will a router do when running a distance vector routing protocol? (Choose two).

What WAN design ensures that your users can still access the internet even in the event of a catastrophic failure at your main ISP?